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000-378 Training materials
1. A company requires syncpoint on each message extracted from a Request Queue. The Message is processed via HTTP by a backend system. If the DataPower device does not successfully process the message, it should not be removed from the Request Queue. They have created a Multi-Protocol Gateway Service which uses an MQ Front Side Handler and an MQ Queue Manager to facilitate this.
How can they implement syncpoint?
A. Set the Queue Manager objects Units Of Work property to 1
B. Set the Queue Manager objects Total Connection Limit property to 1
C. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint cannot be implemented
D. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint is implemented by default
E. Create two Queue Manager objects, assign the Request Queue to one Queue Manager and the Reply Queue to the other then add them both to a single MQ Queue Manager Group
Answer: A
2. Which statement is true about the TCP protocol?
A. TCP is unreliable since it does not support checksum.
B. TCP has no capability to sequence transmitted packets.
C. TCP sends back an ACK packet if the transfer was successful.
D. TCP is usually faster than UDP and is required for any multicasting transmission.
Answer: C
3. A customer is receiving binary packed EDI using S/MIME over HTTP and S/MIME over FTP. They currently use WebSphere Partner Gateway and WebSphere Transformation Extender to send functional acknowledgements, convert the message, and send a correlated response. They are interested in improving performance and scaling this architecture to remove some of the processing overhead.
How could DataPower SOA Appliances provide a benefit to the customer in this scenario?
A. Add XS40 appliances in the DMZ to provide WS-Security decryption of the secure payload
B. Add XI50 appliances to convert the EDI to XML and send functional acknowledgements
C. Add XI50 appliances to parse the attachments on the request messages and deposit the result on a WebSphere MQ queue
D. Add XB60 appliances to move the security functionality to the DMZ and send MDN acknowledgements
E. Add XM70 appliances to send unicast UDP responses to the clients
Answer: D

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000-418 study guide
1. Your job uses the MQ connector stage to read messages from an MQ queue. The job should retrieve the message ID into the MessageID field and parse the payload into two fields: Name is to get the first ten characters, Description is to get the remaining characters.
What will accomplish this?
A. First column is MessageID as Binary 24; second column is Name as Binary 10; select WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element; third column is Description as VarBinary 200; select WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element.
B. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field;second column is Description as VarBinary 200; third column is Name as Binary 10.
C. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field; second column is Name; select WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element; third column is Description; select WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element.
D. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field; second column is Name as Binary 10; third column is Description as VarBinary 200.
Answer: D
2. Which two methods can be used for adding messages to a message handler? (Choose two.)
A. Import message handler from existing message handler dsx.
B. Drag and drop a message from the job log onto the message handler.
C. Type in the message rule by hand.
D. Use the add rule to message hander interface.
Answer: CD
3. Which two steps are required to change from a normal lookup to a sparse lookup in an ODBC Enterprise stage? (Choose two.)
A. Change the lookup option in the stage properties to “Sparse”.
B. Replace columns at the beginning of a SELECT statement with a wildcard asterisk (*).
C. Establish a relationship between the key field column in the source stage with the database table field.
D. Sort the data on the reference link.
Answer: AC

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000-433 practice exam
1. What is a limitation of the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Operational Reporting stand alone package?
A. Web link summary options are not available to check operational reports about the server.
B. The stand alone package does not support TSM servers running on non-Windows platforms.
C. If a TSM server requires attention, the message may not provide a recommendation for getting it running again.
D. If you install the stand alone version and later decide to install the TSM server on Windows, you must first uninstall the stand alone console.
Answer: D
2. A Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 client has been successfully installed on a Windows 2003 server. The administrator has configured Logical Volume Snapshot Agent (LVSA) function for Open File Support (OFS) through the wizard. The customer has the following requirements:
The Windows 2003 server must use VSS (Volume Shadowcopy Services).
Drive C: must be processed with OFS.
Drive D: must not be processed with OFS.
Which options must be defined in the dsm.opt file to meet these requirements?
A. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=vss
include.fs d: snapshotproviderfs=none
B. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=yes
include.fs d: snapshotproviderfs=none
C. include.fs c: imagetype=dynamic
include.fs d: imagetype=static
D. include.fs c: snapshotproviderfs=dynamic
Answer: A
3. Which installation authority is required to install the Tivoli Integrated Solutions Console on the AIX platform?
A. bin user
B. root user
C. non-root user
D. administrative user
Answer: B

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000-530 Exam Question
1. A client requests a GX5108CF demonstration. After receiving the GX5108CF and BYP-2T-2S-0L-P bypass unit, the client calls the SE and explains that the four segments in the network are copper running at 1GBPS. How should the SE respond?
A. Arrange for 2x (DUAL-TVR-KIT-TX-ROHS) transceiver kits and 1x (BYP-4T-0S-0L-P) bypass units.
B. Arrange for a Gx5108SFP with 4x (DUAL-TVR-KIT-LX-ROHS) transceiver kits.
C. Arrange for 4x (DUAL-TVR-KIT-TX-ROHS) transceiver kits (2 kits for NIPS and 2 kits for the bypass unit).
D. Arrange for 4x (DUAL-TVR-KIT-TX-ROHS) transceiver kits and 1x (BYP-4T-0S-0L-P) bypass units.
Answer: A
2. What would happen to traffic that matched a Proventia Network IPS Firewall rule with the action Protect?
A. It would be dropped.
B. It would go through the IDS signature policy.
C. It would trigger alerts only and never be blocked.
D. It would trigger a DNS lookup for the source IP address.
Answer: B
3. An SE is accompanying the sales team to a sales presentation. The sales team asks the SE to discuss commercial and open-source vulnerability scanning solutions. What content should the SE include?
A. Vulnerability scanning tools must be based on high-quality vulnerability research to be most effective.
B. Commercial tools always check for more vulnerabilities than open source tools.
C. Open source tools might cause a denial of service during a scan, but commercial products never cause this problem.
D. Commercial vulnerability scanning tools are faster than open source tools.
Answer: A

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000-719 braindumps
1. In a three node configuration, which two servers can contain InfoSphere Warehouse Intelligent Miner components? (Choose two.)
A. Data Server
B. Mining Server
C. Client
D. Web Server
E. WebSphere Administration Server
Answer: AC
2. If you roll-in daily and roll-out monthly, which approach reduces the number of table partitions and eases the DBA administrative tasks?
A. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for day.
B. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for month.
C. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for month.
D. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for day.
Answer: B
3. You can use the Admin Console to add, remove, start, stop, or restart cubes.
For which other purpose can the Admin Console be used?
A. to rebuild a cubes member cache
B. to empty the member cache for a cube
C. to populate the member cache using a specified MDX query
D. to delete the files on the file system that are holding the member cache data
Answer: A

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000-136 training materials
1. A developer has closed a view in the Java perspective in the workbench.
What can the developer select to recover the original Java perspective layout?
A. Window > Delete Perspective
B. Workbench > Use Defaults
C. Window > Reset Perspective
D. File > Recover Defaults
Answer: C
2. What can a developer manage using Rational Application Developer?
A. a single workspace per workbench
B. multiple workspaces per workbench by switching between workspaces
C. multiple workspaces per workbench by organizing them as views
D. multiple workspaces per workbench with additional licenses
Answer: B
3. When creating a session bean, the default selection for the session bean is to create a remote client view instead of a local client view. This is because:
A. Even though a local client view is available, it is a best practice to never use a local client view in a session bean.
B. Session beans are normally used to implement facades, and as such, require remote interfaces as opposed to local interfaces.
C. A remote client view is easier to use.
D. Local client view for session beans has been deprecated.
Answer: B

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000-102 Exam information
Daily Administration
Manage resource group components, including nfs
Analyze cluster status (check cluster health, etc)
Verify and synchronize the cluster (including daily automatic verification, etc)
Upgrade the cluster (e.g. apply fixes, etc.)
Administer resource groups, including application monitors
Managing PowerHA file collections
Using CSPOC and understand what functions are available (including managing cluster users, passwords, shared VG and filesystems)
Backing up and restoring the cluster
Error notification
Add or remove components during cluster operation
Create application monitor
Understand cluster events and their impact on the cluster
Using WebSMIT
Using DLPAR in a resource group
Understand Priority Override Location behaviour, and functionality differences between PowerHA versions

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000-100 Test information:
Number of questions: 47
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 66%
Test languages: English
This certification validates the skills required to plan, install, configure and manage IBM Enterprise systems (e.g. 570, 595).  This includes infrastructure, virtualization, and those systems admin / management elements unique to the large system environment.  The successful candidate should be able to perform administrative and diagnostic activities needed to support multiple  environments.  This Certified Systems Expert supports complex partitioned POWER5 and POWER6 environments.

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